Skip to main contentSkip to solution

(x1)exx2dx,x>0\int \frac{(x-1)e^x}{x^2} dx, x > 0 equals (where C is an arbitrary constant)

Solution

Correct Option: 2

Given: (x1)exx2dx,x>0\int \frac{(x-1)e^x}{x^2} dx, x > 0


Consider exx\frac{e^x}{x} and differentiate using the Quotient Rule:

ddx(exx)=xddx(ex)exddx(x)x2\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{e^x}{x}\right) = \frac{x \cdot \frac{d}{dx}(e^x) - e^x \cdot \frac{d}{dx}(x)}{x^2}

=xexex1x2= \frac{x \cdot e^x - e^x \cdot 1}{x^2}

=xexexx2= \frac{xe^x - e^x}{x^2}

=ex(x1)x2= \frac{e^x(x-1)}{x^2}

=(x1)exx2= \frac{(x-1)e^x}{x^2}

This matches the original integrand.


Since ddx(exx)=(x1)exx2\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{e^x}{x}\right) = \frac{(x-1)e^x}{x^2}

(x1)exx2dx=exx+C\int \frac{(x-1)e^x}{x^2} dx = \frac{e^x}{x} + C

Keyboard Shortcuts

  • Left arrow: Previous question
  • Right arrow: Next question
  • S key: Jump to solution
  • Q key: Jump to question