Bag I contains 2 red and 3 blue balls and bag II contains red and 5 blue balls. One ball is drawn at random from one of the bags and is found to be blue. If the probability that it was drawn from bag II is , then is equal to:
Bag I contains 2 red and 3 blue balls and bag II contains red and 5 blue balls. One ball is drawn at random from one of the bags and is found to be blue. If the probability that it was drawn from bag II is , then is equal to:
Solution
✅ Correct Option: 3
By Bayes' theorem, .
Simplifying gives , so and .
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