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If the difference between mean and variance of a Binomial distribution is 1 and the difference of their squares is 5, then the probability of success is

Solution

✅ Correct Option: 2

For a Binomial distribution:

Mean =np= np

Variance =np(1−p)=npq= np(1-p) = npq

where nn is the number of trials, pp is the probability of success, and q=1−pq = 1-p.


Given conditions:

Mean - Variance =1= 1 ... (i)

Mean² - Variance² =5= 5 ... (ii)


Using the algebraic identity a2−b2=(a+b)(a−b)a^2 - b^2 = (a+b)(a-b) on condition (ii):

Mean² - Variance² =(= (Mean ++ Variance)()(Mean −- Variance))

5=(5 = (Mean ++ Variance)×1) \times 1

Mean ++ Variance =5= 5 ... (iii)


From equations (i) and (iii):

Mean - Variance =1= 1

Mean + Variance =5= 5

Adding these equations:

2×2 \times Mean =6= 6

Mean =3= 3

Subtracting equation (i) from (iii):

2×2 \times Variance =4= 4

Variance =2= 2


Using the relationship between mean and variance:

VarianceMean=np(1−p)np=1−p\frac{\text{Variance}}{\text{Mean}} = \frac{np(1-p)}{np} = 1-p

23=1−p\frac{2}{3} = 1-p

p=1−23p = 1 - \frac{2}{3}

p=13p = \frac{1}{3}


Therefore, the probability of success is 13\frac{1}{3}.

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