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If the sum and difference of squares of mean and variance of a Binomial distribution is 225256\frac{225}{256} and 63256\frac{63}{256} respectively, the P(X≥2)P(X \geq 2) is:

Solution

✅ Correct Option: 3

For a Binomial Distribution with parameters nn and pp:

Mean =np= np

Variance =npq= npq, where q=1−pq = 1 - p

We are given:

(Mean)2+(Variance)2=225256⋯(1)(\text{Mean})^2 + (\text{Variance})^2 = \dfrac{225}{256} \quad \cdots(1)

(Mean)2−(Variance)2=63256⋯(2)(\text{Mean})^2 - (\text{Variance})^2 = \dfrac{63}{256} \quad \cdots(2)


Adding (1)(1) and (2)(2):

2(np)2=225256+63256=2882562(np)^2 = \dfrac{225}{256} + \dfrac{63}{256} = \dfrac{288}{256}

(np)2=144256(np)^2 = \dfrac{144}{256}

np=1216=34np = \dfrac{12}{16} = \dfrac{3}{4}

Subtracting (2)(2) from (1)(1):

2(npq)2=225256−63256=1622562(npq)^2 = \dfrac{225}{256} - \dfrac{63}{256} = \dfrac{162}{256}

(npq)2=81256(npq)^2 = \dfrac{81}{256}

npq=916npq = \dfrac{9}{16}


q=npqnp=9/163/4=916×43=34q = \dfrac{npq}{np} = \dfrac{9/16}{3/4} = \dfrac{9}{16} \times \dfrac{4}{3} = \dfrac{3}{4}

p=1−q=1−34=14p = 1 - q = 1 - \dfrac{3}{4} = \dfrac{1}{4}

From np=34np = \dfrac{3}{4}:

n×14=34n \times \dfrac{1}{4} = \dfrac{3}{4}

n=3n = 3

So n=3n = 3, p=14p = \dfrac{1}{4}, q=34q = \dfrac{3}{4}


P(X≥2)=P(X=2)+P(X=3)P(X \geq 2) = P(X=2) + P(X=3)

P(X=2)=(32)(14)2(34)1=3×116×34=964P(X=2) = \binom{3}{2}\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^2\left(\dfrac{3}{4}\right)^1 = 3 \times \dfrac{1}{16} \times \dfrac{3}{4} = \dfrac{9}{64}

P(X=3)=(33)(14)3=1×164=164P(X=3) = \binom{3}{3}\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^3 = 1 \times \dfrac{1}{64} = \dfrac{1}{64}

P(X≥2)=964+164=1064P(X \geq 2) = \dfrac{9}{64} + \dfrac{1}{64} = \dfrac{10}{64}

P(X≥2)=532P(X \geq 2) = \dfrac{5}{32}

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