IPMAT Indore 2019 (MCQ) - There are numbers a_1, a_2, a_3, , a_n each of them being +1 or -1. If it is known that a_1 a_2 + a_2 a_3 + a_3 a_4 + a_n-1 a_n + a_n a_1 = 0 then | PYQs + Solutions | AfterBoards
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IPMAT Indore 2019 (MCQ) PYQs

IPMAT Indore 2019

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There are numbers a1,a2,a3,,ana_1, a_2, a_3, \ldots, a_n each of them being +1+1 or 1-1. If it is known that a1a2+a2a3+a3a4+an1an+ana1=0a_1 a_2 + a_2 a_3 + a_3 a_4 + \ldots a_{n-1} a_n + a_n a_1 = 0 then

Correct Option: 3
Given: \newline Each ai+1,1fori=1,2,...,naᵢ ∈ {+1, -1} for i = 1, 2, ..., n
a1a2+a2a3+a3a4+...+an1an+ana1=0a₁a₂ + a₂a₃ + a₃a₄ + ... + aₙ₋₁aₙ + aₙa₁ = 0
Let's denote S=a1a2+a2a3+a3a4+...+an1an+ana1.S = a₁a₂ + a₂a₃ + a₃a₄ + ... + aₙ₋₁aₙ + aₙa₁.
Since each aiaᵢ is either +1+1 or 1-1, each product aiai+1aᵢaᵢ₊₁ is also either +1+1 or 1-1 \newline . \newline For S=0S = 0, the sum of n terms (each being ±1) to equal zero.
This means:
Number of (+1)(+1) terms = Number of (1)(-1) terms
Therefore, nn must be even
Now let's consider what values of nn are possible.
For n=2:n = 2: We have a1a2+a2a1=2a1a2=0a₁a₂ + a₂a₁ = 2a₁a₂ = 0, which is impossible since a1a2=±1a₁a₂ = ±1.
For n=4:n = 4: We have a1a2+a2a3+a3a4+a4a1=0a₁a₂ + a₂a₃ + a₃a₄ + a₄a₁ = 0.
This is possible. For example: a1=1,a2=1,a3=1,a4=1a₁ = 1, a₂ = 1, a₃ = -1, a₄ = -1
Then: (1)(1)+(1)(1)+(1)(1)+(1)(1)=11+11=0(1)(1) + (1)(-1) + (-1)(-1) + (-1)(1) = 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 = 0 ✓
The key insight is that we're looking at a cyclic sum where consecutive elements are multiplied. Since each product is ±1±1 and we need the sum to be 00, we need exactly n/2n/2 products to be +1+1 and n/2n/2 products to be 1-1.
After working through the algebra and constraints, it turns out that n must be a multiple of 44 for the equation to have solutions.
For n2n ≡ 2 (mod 44), it can be shown that no solution exists due to the cyclic nature of the constraint.
Therefore, the answer is: nn can be any multiple of 44.

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