IPMAT Indore - The inequality _af(x) < _ag(x) implies that | PYQs + Solutions

IPMAT Indore

Modern Math

Medium

$f(x) > g(x) > 0$ for $0 < a < 1$ and $g(x) > f(x) > 0$ for $a > 1$

$g(x) > f(x) > 0$ for $0 < a < 1$ and $f(x) > g(x) > 0$ for $a > 1$

$f(x) > g(x) > 0$ for $a > 0$

$g(x) > f(x) > 0$ for $a > 0$

✅ Correct Option: 1

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